Hi guys
I have a rules quesiton for anyone who knows their stuff! This one has been bugging me, because in recent months I have seen the rule interpreted in different ways in the local league I play in. The World rules aren't written very clearly in my opinion, so its defintely tricky to figure out a ruling sometimes!
The question is this : in a foul-break situation (let's say 4 balls have not hit a cushion) the oponent of the original breaker is awared two shots and the balls are-racked. When the oponent then breaks off - and assuming a legal break occurs - if no balls are potted from the break, does the player lose a visit, and therefore have one visit remaining? Or, if nothing is potted, do the two-visits then commence from there?
As I say, in recent months I have seen both outcomes. Nobody I've spoken to seems to be completely sure!
I have a rules quesiton for anyone who knows their stuff! This one has been bugging me, because in recent months I have seen the rule interpreted in different ways in the local league I play in. The World rules aren't written very clearly in my opinion, so its defintely tricky to figure out a ruling sometimes!
The question is this : in a foul-break situation (let's say 4 balls have not hit a cushion) the oponent of the original breaker is awared two shots and the balls are-racked. When the oponent then breaks off - and assuming a legal break occurs - if no balls are potted from the break, does the player lose a visit, and therefore have one visit remaining? Or, if nothing is potted, do the two-visits then commence from there?
As I say, in recent months I have seen both outcomes. Nobody I've spoken to seems to be completely sure!
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