Originally Posted by arbitrage
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Lengthy post on top of lengthy post alert.!!!
Hi Arbitrage, thanks for the post.
Yes, I totally agree that what exactly makes something legitimately "hand made" or "made in the UK" is somewhat subjective and debatable. However, what we are discussing here is quite clear to me, and, displays questionable integrity. Simply on that basis alone, other questions could naturally follow which serve to do NOTHING but tarnish a reputation. Whether others here are able to see that or not, whether they take into account their personal liking for a maker or not, or whatever else they consider relevant to make such judgements, is their own decision to make.
What we know here in this discussion, set out in simple bullet points is....
1) A product is made (and I mean to completion and to a virtually finished item) outside the UK, by a foreign maker.
2) That product then, is imported into the UK by a UK maker, who has established a name for building cues in the UK, by hand and alone, and, badging them as such.
3) The imported product is sanded and polished, fitted with a badge and base joint and then sold.
4) The imported product is sold as coming from the makers workshop, without disclosure or information of its origins, bearing the same badge as the UK made product.
5) Due to point 4 above, it is reasonable for a buyer to assume the product was produced in the EXACT same way as those which he has built a reputation for producing.
6) The assumption of point 5, would most definitely lead any buyer to a willingness to pay a higher price for that product than he may for one which was imported.
7) Misleading or not.?
Now yes, I am referring to Jason here and have no problem in saying so. I am only using his example, which he himself has admitted to doing. I have no axe to grind against Jason and am not looking to fall out with anyone. I am simply stating my own view of this situation and raising points that perhaps need to be considered.
The problem as I see it though, and I know I am repeating myself from post 283 of the closed thread is this.....
If a maker actually makes his own cues, has made a reputation for doing so, BUT, also used / uses / will use imported cues (and yes I mean cues, not shafts) then how can anyone be sure that if they place an order for a cue made by that maker, they will get a cue made by that maker.?
You see, to me at least, the question of WHY IT WAS DONE IN THE FIRST PLACE, is one that needs to be asked. To me anyway, that's clear.
The answer would be..... "to expedite the manufacturing process, reduce costs and to increase profits while minimising personal input"
It's for anyone who reads this, or who has some knowledge of this whole saga to decide what that tells them.
Apologies to Jason if it appears like I am singling him out. We know there are others who do this and have done for years and years, but as I said, it's just as an example of what we know and the issues that incurrs for that maker.
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