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I was watching Dott play Ebdon on interactive and Dott was winning by about 30 points but all the red balls where covering one pocket which the black ball was stuck in. The commentators were suggesting Dott tried to knock a red onto the black and deliberately pot the black and that this was a good idea. What would be the ruling on this if he had potted the black and it was deemed to be deliberate. I thought a deliberate foul was a loss of frame? The frame ended in a re-rack.
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There is no distinction between an unintentional foul and a deliberate foul in the rules. However, a referee can take action (warning a player, or awarding a frame), if a deliberate foul amounted to 'ungentlemanly conduct'. -
Indeed, and I doubt it would have on that occasion. And even if it were, it would be easy for the player in that situation to say he was not doing it deliberately but mis-hit the shot.Originally Posted by Souwester View PostComment
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I quite agree that in the instance quoted by the OP, it's highly unlikely that a warning would be give, since if anything, the foul is penalising the offender, and probably handing the advantage of easy reds over a pocket to the opponent. The offender wouldn't be gaining any personal advantage by playing the foul.Originally Posted by The Statman View Post
An instance of a deliberate foul that *would* most definitely be considered as ungentlemanly conduct is where a player who is say 34 points ahead and snookered on the last red that's hanging over the pocket, deliberately fouls to ensure that red goes down.... four points penalty, meaning his opponent is now only 30 points behind, but with no red left, and therefore needing a snooker.Comment
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