Hello guys,
As the title says, I'm looking for clarification regarding 2 things, 2 very specific things. I'd like to have awnsers from refs (if possible) as I know a few members of this forum are refs.
I'm not looking for awnser like "rule states that regarding the jump shot" or stuff like that. I'm looking for something more specific, which includes "intent" by the striker.
The first thing I'm looking for clarification for is this: say the white's on the brown spot, a red is on the blue spot and a red on the pink spot. The striker tries to hit the red on the blue spot, using draw to bring back the cueball to the baulk cushion. In trying to do so, he does a miscue which causes the cueball to jump over that red sitting on the blue spot, falls back on the cloth past the 1st red (which is on the blue spot) and then hits the red on the pink spot.
In this case, the intention of the striker wasnt to make a jump shot and the jump shot is the result of a miscue so in that specific case, thats not a foul of 4, right?
I recall seeing something similar to this on the Pro Tour in the last 12 months or so (could've been the 2010 UK Champ I think) and the ref didnt called a foul, despite the opposing player and the 2 commentators who tought a foul was supposed to be called on that shot.
I assumed a foul wasnt called because the striker never "intended" to make a jump shot, therefore, since he still hit a red first (ball on), the shot was deemed legal.
The second scenario I'd like clarification with is this: ball is near the baulk cushion, about 6 inches off the cushion, between the green and brown, with 15 reds scattered around the pink, black and blue spot, with a tough path to get back in baulk (kinda like after about 8-10 safety shots have been played at the start of a frame).
Instead of playing a thin contact off a red to bring the white back to baulk (which would be hard to do due to the numbers of red scattered), the striker tries to hit a red near the blue spot and draw the white back to baulk. Keep in mind he's about 6 inches off the baulk cushion so he has to raise the butt of his cue a bit. In doing so, he miscues and fails to hit a red despite seeing a few of them full ball).
The ref doesnt call F&M. I clearly recall this happening vs Stephen Hendry and he was surprised a F&M wasnt called, as were the commentators. Hendry then seemed to have asked the ref why no F&M was called.
1 commentator then said, after a few minutes of discussion, that since the intent of the striker wasnt to miscue, that it isnt a F&M.
If anyone recalls seeing these things happening, would be nice to have some feedback. If any certified ref's reading this post, it'd be nice to have your feedback.
I'd like some clarification on this because at the moment, few guys in a league I play in would like some light shed on this.
Thanks guys.
As the title says, I'm looking for clarification regarding 2 things, 2 very specific things. I'd like to have awnsers from refs (if possible) as I know a few members of this forum are refs.
I'm not looking for awnser like "rule states that regarding the jump shot" or stuff like that. I'm looking for something more specific, which includes "intent" by the striker.
The first thing I'm looking for clarification for is this: say the white's on the brown spot, a red is on the blue spot and a red on the pink spot. The striker tries to hit the red on the blue spot, using draw to bring back the cueball to the baulk cushion. In trying to do so, he does a miscue which causes the cueball to jump over that red sitting on the blue spot, falls back on the cloth past the 1st red (which is on the blue spot) and then hits the red on the pink spot.
In this case, the intention of the striker wasnt to make a jump shot and the jump shot is the result of a miscue so in that specific case, thats not a foul of 4, right?
I recall seeing something similar to this on the Pro Tour in the last 12 months or so (could've been the 2010 UK Champ I think) and the ref didnt called a foul, despite the opposing player and the 2 commentators who tought a foul was supposed to be called on that shot.
I assumed a foul wasnt called because the striker never "intended" to make a jump shot, therefore, since he still hit a red first (ball on), the shot was deemed legal.
The second scenario I'd like clarification with is this: ball is near the baulk cushion, about 6 inches off the cushion, between the green and brown, with 15 reds scattered around the pink, black and blue spot, with a tough path to get back in baulk (kinda like after about 8-10 safety shots have been played at the start of a frame).
Instead of playing a thin contact off a red to bring the white back to baulk (which would be hard to do due to the numbers of red scattered), the striker tries to hit a red near the blue spot and draw the white back to baulk. Keep in mind he's about 6 inches off the baulk cushion so he has to raise the butt of his cue a bit. In doing so, he miscues and fails to hit a red despite seeing a few of them full ball).
The ref doesnt call F&M. I clearly recall this happening vs Stephen Hendry and he was surprised a F&M wasnt called, as were the commentators. Hendry then seemed to have asked the ref why no F&M was called.
1 commentator then said, after a few minutes of discussion, that since the intent of the striker wasnt to miscue, that it isnt a F&M.
If anyone recalls seeing these things happening, would be nice to have some feedback. If any certified ref's reading this post, it'd be nice to have your feedback.
I'd like some clarification on this because at the moment, few guys in a league I play in would like some light shed on this.
Thanks guys.
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