Ok, a question to all the refs on here!
Hope I get this right. A recently witnessed match between two friends of mine left me with the following problem: One of them (the allegedly worse player of the two) was leading comfortably in a frame. He snookered his opponent on the yellow and player B failed to get out of it. The ref called a miss cause it was a really poor attempt. No controversy here! But now, the guy knew that if he failed to hit the yellow ball again, he would need snookers himself to win the frame. One would assume that he now makes a genuine attempt at hitting the yellow. But he, knowing that no miss would be called (as he would need a snooker afterwards), decided to not genuinely go for the yellow (it was a tough snooker) but put the white somewhere safe, not taking the risk of leaving the yellow on. He felt confident about his ability to get a snooker himself and knew that his opponent wasn't too good at getting out of snookers. However, he, at least, tried to pretend to go for the yellow to not make it too obviously but it was still quite clear he didn't really aim for the yellow. He just tried to avoid the snooker himself as he didn't want to leave a free ball.
So, my question now is: is it possible to call a miss in this case, even if the player already requires snookers?
I hope I described the situation clearly enough to understand.
Hope I get this right. A recently witnessed match between two friends of mine left me with the following problem: One of them (the allegedly worse player of the two) was leading comfortably in a frame. He snookered his opponent on the yellow and player B failed to get out of it. The ref called a miss cause it was a really poor attempt. No controversy here! But now, the guy knew that if he failed to hit the yellow ball again, he would need snookers himself to win the frame. One would assume that he now makes a genuine attempt at hitting the yellow. But he, knowing that no miss would be called (as he would need a snooker afterwards), decided to not genuinely go for the yellow (it was a tough snooker) but put the white somewhere safe, not taking the risk of leaving the yellow on. He felt confident about his ability to get a snooker himself and knew that his opponent wasn't too good at getting out of snookers. However, he, at least, tried to pretend to go for the yellow to not make it too obviously but it was still quite clear he didn't really aim for the yellow. He just tried to avoid the snooker himself as he didn't want to leave a free ball.
So, my question now is: is it possible to call a miss in this case, even if the player already requires snookers?
I hope I described the situation clearly enough to understand.
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