Can someone explain Rule 11(i), seems pretty confusing to me?

[Byrom]

You've got to distinguish between the striker and the non-striker. If the striker touches any ball in play then it will be a foul. If it is accidental then 3.11(i) might apply. If it is deliberate then 2.14 applies. He can't argue that he's moved the ball as referee as only the non-striker can be the referee, as previously explained.

Yes, you are also a referee in the match, but only when you're the non-striker. You can't both be referees at the same time.

It was his turn - he got down at first to pot the green but changed his mind called foul and a miss and went to pick up the ball and replace it - I was not the striker he was - I told him before he touched the ball not to pick it up - who is the ref at this point me or him?

[SnkrRef]

It was his turn - he got down at first to pot the green but changed his mind called foul and a miss and went to pick up the ball and replace it - I was not the striker he was - I told him before he touched the ball not to pick it up - who is the ref at this point me or him?

Well that does put rather a different slant on things if he was down on his shot and only then decided to call a miss.

It is very difficult when you're playing without a referee and there has to be an element of goodwill and trust that your opponent will play fairly and in the spirit of the game.

Now that you have made your latest post it certainly is less clear cut in my mind. Ignoring the difference in scores, I think that unless the Miss is agreed straight away, when the foul is called, it is not right to claim a miss some while later after you've got down on your shot and decided you don't like it. He is the striker still, at that point, and would remain to until a Miss is called and agreed upon. I would certainly call a foul if he suddenly picked the cue ball up, and even under pre-2014 rules that would have meant you would have been in hand.

[Byrom]

Well that does put rather a different slant on things if he was down on his shot and only then decided to call a miss.

It is very difficult when you're playing without a referee and there has to be an element of goodwill and trust that your opponent will play fairly and in the spirit of the game.

Now that you have made your latest post it certainly is less clear cut in my mind. Ignoring the difference in scores, I think that unless the Miss is agreed straight away, when the foul is called, it is not right to claim a miss some while later after you've got down on your shot and decided you don't like it. He is the striker still, at that point, and would remain to until a Miss is called and agreed upon. I would certainly call a foul if he suddenly picked the cue ball up, and even under pre-2014 rules that would have meant you would have been in hand.

Ok cool so its a foul in hand not play it from where he placed it last or where it was before he picked it up - lol -

Right and if that ever happened again now under the rules is it a foul and ball in hand also or does it depend on if he is - oh God I am past caring - going to bed I don't think it will ever happen again anyway hopefully.

I would like to thank you for your efforts in trying to resolve this anyway - it has confused the heck out of more than one ref and quite a few players I have asked. Still not exactly 100 per cent on it nor was anyone else really.

Goodnight anyway - nice chatting