Hi,
I have been playing snooker for some 30 yrs now to a reasonably high standard ( 2 century breaks), but, no one in that time has been able to give me a difinative answer as to why a player cannot be called a 'miss' if his opponent is 48 up with only 1 red left. What is the actual reasoning as why a player cannot be called 'miss' just because he has amassed a substantial lead. If I were in a position where my opponent needed 4 snookers, and he got one, I would make it look like I tried to hit ball on, but also making sure I left cue ball in a situation where my opponent hopefully couldnt get another. I saw this this done in this years world champs. The player simply made it look like he tried, but left cue ball pretty safe. Knowing that no 'miss' would be called. Please explain why that rule is being used. As I see it, the player needing the snookers has little or no incentive to lay hard snookers, knowing that no 'miss' will be called. Seems a tad unfair. Please enlighten me.
thank you
Ian Ferguson
I have been playing snooker for some 30 yrs now to a reasonably high standard ( 2 century breaks), but, no one in that time has been able to give me a difinative answer as to why a player cannot be called a 'miss' if his opponent is 48 up with only 1 red left. What is the actual reasoning as why a player cannot be called 'miss' just because he has amassed a substantial lead. If I were in a position where my opponent needed 4 snookers, and he got one, I would make it look like I tried to hit ball on, but also making sure I left cue ball in a situation where my opponent hopefully couldnt get another. I saw this this done in this years world champs. The player simply made it look like he tried, but left cue ball pretty safe. Knowing that no 'miss' would be called. Please explain why that rule is being used. As I see it, the player needing the snookers has little or no incentive to lay hard snookers, knowing that no 'miss' will be called. Seems a tad unfair. Please enlighten me.
thank you
Ian Ferguson
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