A question of a rule

[cesard]

One player is ahead of the another 34 pts with 35 remaining (one red). Then the player is ahead hits the red with cue ball and red goes off the table. It is a 4 pts foul to the other player and red doesn´t return to the table.

But now other player is 30 behind with 27 in table, then it is clear the other player gets an advantage of this foul. My question is, how is it solved? Does it change if foul is comitted deliberately or accidentally?

[ste bed]

It's not that easy to deliberately make the red leave the table it could go anywhere the other guy pots it and clears up

[DeanH]

What happens next - The non-offender has the usual options after a foul, play the cue ball from where it came to rest or ask the opponent to play from where it came to rest.
Miss is not an option because the ball on was struck.

If the referee considers the offending player had played in a wilful or ungentlemanly conduct then (i) the player could be warned that any further conduct the frame will be awarded to his opponent or (ii) award the frame to the opponent, depending on seriousness.

[itsnoteasy]

Or, could you not pick a red out of a pocket put it over a bag at the baulk end( folk are never sure if they have just not noticed a red in baulk)while the refs scrambling about the floor getting the other red, then just calmly pot that and clear up? That's what I did, he didn't even twig! I don't count it as cheating, more using my initiative. Surely there can't be a law against that.

[jrc750]

Or, could you not pick a red out of a pocket put it over a bag at the baulk end( folk are never sure if they have just not noticed a red in baulk)while the refs scrambling about the floor getting the other red, then just calmly pot that and clear up? That's what I did, he didn't even twig! I don't count it as cheating, more using my initiative. Surely there can't be a law against that.

Lol you are on fire tonight
Definitely cheating ha ha ha

[Londonlad147]

One player is ahead of the another 34 pts with 35 remaining (one red). Then the player is ahead hits the red with cue ball and red goes off the table. It is a 4 pts foul to the other player and red doesn´t return to the table.

But now other player is 30 behind with 27 in table, then it is clear the other player gets an advantage of this foul. My question is, how is it solved? Does it change if foul is comitted deliberately or accidentally?

Unfortunately it's 'rub of the green'. The red would not be brought back to the table under any circumstances.

s3.3(h) lists the only times a red can be returned to the table:

(h) Reds are not usually replaced on the table once pocketed or forced off the table regardless of the fact that a player may thus benefit from a foul. However, exceptions are provided for in Section 3; Rules 2(c) (ii), Rule 9, Rule 14(b) and (f), 15(a) and 18(c).

However, I think there's an omission and 3.11(i) could also lead to a red being returned to the table.

[acesinc]

Unfortunately it's 'rub of the green'. The red would not be brought back to the table under any circumstances.

s3.3(h) lists the only times a red can be returned to the table:

(h) Reds are not usually replaced on the table once pocketed or forced off the table regardless of the fact that a player may thus benefit from a foul. However, exceptions are provided for in Section 3; Rules 2(c) (ii), Rule 9, Rule 14(b) and (f), 15(a) and 18(c).

However, I think there's an omission and 3.11(i) could also lead to a red being returned to the table.

I looked at all the exceptions you noted here Londonlad and I agree, 3.11 (i) should be included in that list. It states specifically about being "hampered" and "preparing to play a stroke", so if I understand you correctly, this could lead to playing a shot alongside the cushion so one must get a leg over the table, and perhaps a ball is in the jaws of the pocket and gets bumped by clothing and falls in pocket. Makes sense.