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Originally Posted by joe2311
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Good afternoon joe2311. So are you saying in your reply that you still believe its a free ball?Those who have been there and done that :snooker: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of...oker_champions -
of course its a free ballComment
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In your opinion where a foul stroke is made on the last red in any situation and where the cue ball comes to rest virtually touching the last red with the 6 colours no where near the red and cue ball would you also be awarding a free ball?Those who have been there and done that :snooker: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of...oker_championsComment
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are you trying to take the **** or are you serious its not a hard rule to understand after a foul you must be able to hit both outside edges of the red on equal opposite sides without touching another ballComment
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But that wouldn't be a free ball and I get the impression you believe it would beThose who have been there and done that :snooker: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of...oker_championsComment
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its not belife its a fact! you honestly belive that after a foul the last red gets sandwiched between the green and brown its not a free ball its a free ball no matter where you put the white as you cant hit both edges without hitting another ball 1st if you cant understand this you are on the wrong forum mate.Last edited by joe2311; 17 March 2008, 01:11 PM.Comment
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Joe - If after a foul the white finishes almost touching the red and the green and brown where nowhere near - would this be a free ball?
To convince the referees print out this thread!Comment
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No joe2311 the situation I described in my last or second last reply would not be a free ball. A foul and miss possibly but No Free Ball and if you cant see that then the is no point in us debating the original situation any further.Those who have been there and done that :snooker: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of...oker_championsComment
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Joe2311, your definition suggests that if the cueball can hit one extreme edge then it also has to be able to hit the point diametrically opposite. This is impossible without moving the cueball two balls to the side. Interpretation of the rules should take into account what is actually possible. It does not matter how far apart the balls are the same is true.Comment
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In my diagram, the two positions I have drawn in the D are not free balls.Originally Posted by joe2311 View Post
By putting the white almost touching the red, the route to the two extreme edges of the red do not involve the green or brown, because they are, essentially, behind the red.
Read carefully the text above my diagram and it will become clear.Comment
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That is exactly why the D-line situation is not a free ball. The cue-ball can be placed almost touching the red in such a position as Dantuck described above. Therefore no free ball can be claimed.Originally Posted by joe2311 View PostComment
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free ball the white must be able to pass both sides of the red without touching another ball statman is this or isnt this a free ball grb green red brown in a line all touching each other.Comment
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Therefore the G[R]B wouldnt be a free ball Joe2311 because with cue ball in hand the cue ball can be placed in the same situation except the green and brown are closer to the red but not interferring with the situation.Originally Posted by joe2311 View PostThose who have been there and done that :snooker: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of...oker_championsComment
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No. The white does not have to pass both sides; the white has to hit the finest edge on both sides which is quite different.Originally Posted by joe2311 View PostComment
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