Originally Posted by davis_greatest
So at the end of the day Gordon has 2 ball more than Barry, randomly picked ...
the general formula giving the probability of Gordon getting more pinks than Charlie would be, if they both buy n balls to start with ...
P = (1/2^(2*n))*(Sum(i=0 to n-1; (n-1)!/(i!*(n-1-i)!*Sum(j=i+1 to n+1; (n+1)!/j!*(n+1-j)!))
for a) I get 42/64 ...
This number should decrease as n increases (converging to 1/2 by excess?). The fact that it's higher than 1/2 might look puzzling as the answer would be the same if the question was about browns, not pinks. But then Gordon can now have both more pinks and more browns than Charlie...
well ... I hope this is OK (you tell me about a brain teaser early morning after a snookery evening! )
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