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oh, I think I misread your question anyway, so.... I think I'll never score a point here, unless you do the funny anagrams again. 
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It is something that cannot possibly happen in the last 32.
It can happen in the last 16, but very rarely does (I think 2005 is the only year it happened).
It is more likely to happen in the quarters – and often does.
It is extremely likely to occur in the semis – and usually does.
It is bound to happen in the final, technically, although a statistician would probably disregard the final as a triviality.Comment
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That two players in the top 16 who are ranked beside each other (like 4 & 5, 7 & 8, 10 & 11 etc.) meet in a match?“There is nothing like looking, if you want to find something. You certainly usually find something, if you look, but it is not always quite the something you were after.” - J.R.R. Tolkien
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Doubt it. The players ranked 16 and 17 could meet in the last 32 and the above is not bound to happen in the final.Originally Posted by Lindea
Not that I have any better ideas...
"If anybody can knock these three balls in, this man can."
David Taylor, 11 January 1982, as Steve Davis prepared to pot the blue, in making the first 147 break on television.Comment
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Well, think why something may be impossible in the last 32 – and it has nothing to do with the players themselves, their rankings etc., just to do with the way the tournament is set up.
Once you've cracked this, and seen how it is guaranteed to happen in the final (albeit as I said earlier, that this would be disregarded as trivial by statisticians), you'll have the answer.Comment
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Is it related in any way to the number of sessions played?"If anybody can knock these three balls in, this man can."
David Taylor, 11 January 1982, as Steve Davis prepared to pot the blue, in making the first 147 break on television.Comment
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I was thinking about that but then there should be no increased lilihood of it happening in the quarters so it can't beComment
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Well not exactly.
It IS to do with match lengths – well that's half of it.Comment
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Would it still be bound to happen in the final if the final were changed to best-of-31 frames?"If anybody can knock these three balls in, this man can."
David Taylor, 11 January 1982, as Steve Davis prepared to pot the blue, in making the first 147 break on television.Comment
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It is bound to happen in the final, full stop.
I should ignore the final, and concentrate on the first three rounds. Maybe look at the results of the second round in 2005, might help!Comment
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This isn't a full answer but is it related somehow to the fact that there was a "run" of frames achieved by losers: 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12? (i.e. results of 13-7, 13-8,... , 13-12)"If anybody can knock these three balls in, this man can."
David Taylor, 11 January 1982, as Steve Davis prepared to pot the blue, in making the first 147 break on television.Comment
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Well, let's say you're getting warm!Comment
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Or something like the person who loses has won more frames in the tournament than he has lost?
I only say SOMETHING like that, because that is not bound to happen in the final!"If anybody can knock these three balls in, this man can."
David Taylor, 11 January 1982, as Steve Davis prepared to pot the blue, in making the first 147 break on television.Comment
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Something like every frame score (1, 2, ...., 13) had been achieved by the end of that stage in the tournament?
Again, can't be right, as not bound to happen in the final, but am I getting warmer or colder?"If anybody can knock these three balls in, this man can."
David Taylor, 11 January 1982, as Steve Davis prepared to pot the blue, in making the first 147 break on television.Comment
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Hello everyone,
Every score in that round is different.
first time it happened in 2nd round in 2005 and gets more likely as the rounds go on, with fewer matches, but conversely more scorelines.
(can't happen in first round as only 10 different possible scorelines, but 16 different matches)Comment
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